1-Does defining capital as private versus public, as neoliberalist or marxist or otherwise, effectively change one's access to basic resources? Isn't the starving man starving whether he doesn't own bread because he doesn't own the money to buy bread or doesn't own bread because it's not a commodity? So neoliberalism might really only have an effect on the middle class, not the rich or the poor.
2-Is it possible to eliminate poverty without eliminating wealth? Can you ensure a higher standard of living for everyone (meaning, is it possible to change a uniform standard of living for the better)??